UPSC CSE · General Studies Paper I

UPSC Prelims 2018 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

99 questions from the UPSC Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper I paper, in paper order, each with its answer and a full explanation. Difficulty split: 17% easy, 56% medium and 27% hard. Subjects covered: Polity, Environment and Ecology, International Relations, Indian Economy, Modern History and more.

  1. Consider the following statements:

    1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.

    2. In the Lok Sabha, a ''Leader of the Opposition'' was recognised for the first time in 1969.

    3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 only

    Read the full explanation →

  2. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

    1. Hard and waxy leaves
    2. Tiny leaves
    3. Thorns instead of leaves

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 2 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

    Read the full explanation →

  3. As per the NSSO 70th Round 'Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households', consider the following statements:

    1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.

    2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.

    3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from source other than agricultural activities.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 2 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1 and 3 only

    Read the full explanation →

  4. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

    1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.

    2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 only

    Read the full explanation →

  5. Consider the following statements:

    1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

    2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    Read the full explanation →

  6. Which one of the following best describes the term 'Merchant Discount Rate' sometimes seen in news?

    1. The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
    2. The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
    3. The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.
    4. The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.

    Read the full explanation →

  7. What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming a member of the 'Nuclear Suppliers Group'?

    1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.

    2. It automatically becomes a member of the 'Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)'.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    Read the full explanation →

  8. With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.

    2. Non-resident entities not offering advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the 'Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements'.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Read the full explanation →

  9. Consider the following statements:

    1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.

    2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.

    3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State Government to take the Central Government's consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1 and 3 only

    Read the full explanation →

  10. Consider the following statements:

    1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the edible oil production of the country in the last five years.

    2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    Read the full explanation →

  11. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

    1. Aurobindo Ghosh
    2. Bipin Chandra Pal
    3. Lala Lajpat Rai
    4. Motilal Nehru
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Lala Lajpat Rai

    Read the full explanation →

  12. Consider the following statements:

    1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.

    2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the issuing Authority.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Read the full explanation →

  13. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?

    1. Aral Sea
    2. Black Sea
    3. Lake Baikal

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 2 only
    4. 1 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    Read the full explanation →

  14. Rule of Law Index' is released by which of the following?

    1. Amnesty International
    2. International Court of Justice
    3. The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
    4. World Justice Project
    Show answer

    Answer: D. World Justice Project

    Read the full explanation →

  15. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

    1. Indian Banks' Association
    2. National Securities Depository Limited
    3. National Payments Corporation of India
    4. Reserve Bank of India
    Show answer

    Answer: C. National Payments Corporation of India

    Read the full explanation →

  16. Consider the following statements:

    1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.

    2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    Read the full explanation →

  17. The identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open 'Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)'. What does it imply?

    1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
    2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Both 1 and 2

    Read the full explanation →

  18. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

    1. Angola and Zambia
    2. Morocco and Tunisia
    3. Venezuela and Colombia
    4. Yemen and South Sudan
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Yemen and South Sudan

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  19. Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?

    1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
    2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
    3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

    Read the full explanation →

  20. With reference to Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

    1. Committee on Government Assurances
    2. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
    3. Rules Committee
    4. Business Advisory Committee
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Committee on Subordinate Legislation

    Read the full explanation →

  21. Consider the following statements:

    1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.

    2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council for Teacher Education guidelines.

    3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 3 only
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 only

    Read the full explanation →

  22. Consider the following pairs:

    Tradition State

    1. Chapchar Kut festival — Mizoram
    2. Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur
    3. Thang-Ta dance — Sikkim

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 3 only
    4. 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 1 and 2

    Read the full explanation →

  23. Consider the following statements:

    1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.

    2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    Read the full explanation →

  24. The term 'two-state solution' is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

    1. China
    2. Israel
    3. Iraq
    4. Yemen
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Israel

    Read the full explanation →

  25. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

    1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.

    2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.

    3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 only

    Read the full explanation →

  26. India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

    1. ILO
    2. IMF
    3. UNCTAD
    4. WTO
    Show answer

    Answer: D. WTO

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  27. Consider the following statements:

    1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.

    2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.

    3. Rajasthan has iron mines.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 3 only

    Read the full explanation →

  28. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

    1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.

    2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    Read the full explanation →

  29. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

    1. Bengaluru
    2. Hyderabad
    3. Nagpur
    4. Pune
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Bengaluru

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  30. International Labour Organization's Convention 138 and 182 are related to

    1. Child labour
    2. Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
    3. Regulation of food prices and food security
    4. Gender parity at the workplace
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Child labour

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  31. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

    1. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
    2. A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
    3. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
    4. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

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  32. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

    1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.

    2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    Read the full explanation →

  33. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?

    1. The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
    2. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
    3. The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
    4. The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

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  34. Consider the following countries:

    1. Australia
    2. Canada
    3. China
    4. India
    5. Japan
    6. USA

    Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN?

    1. 1, 2, 4 and 5
    2. 3, 4, 5 and 6
    3. 1, 3, 4 and 5
    4. 2, 3, 4 and 6
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1, 3, 4 and 5

    Read the full explanation →

  35. With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.

    2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations. 3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 only

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  36. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the 'Digital India' Plan of the Government of India?

    1. Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did.

    2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.

    3. Connect many of our villages to the internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 3 only

    Read the full explanation →

  37. Consider the following pairs:

    Towns sometimes mentioned in news — Country

    1. Aleppo — Syria
    2. Kirkuk — Yemen
    3. Mosul — Palestine
    4. Mazar-i-Sharif — Afghanistan

    Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 1 and 4
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 1 and 4

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  38. In the Federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to

    1. Federal Legislature
    2. Governor General
    3. Provincial Legislature
    4. Provincial Governors
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Governor General

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  39. Consider the following statements:

    1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the assembly.

    2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    Read the full explanation →

  40. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

    1. If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
    2. If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
    3. If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
    4. If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

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  41. Consider the following statements:

    1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.

    2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Both 1 and 2

    Read the full explanation →

  42. The well-known painting 'Bani Thani' belongs to the

    1. Bundi school
    2. Jaipur school
    3. Kangra school
    4. Kishangarh school
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Kishangarh school

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  43. What is 'Terminal High Altitude Area Defence (THAAD)', sometimes seen in the news?

    1. An Israeli radar system
    2. India's indigenous anti-missile programme
    3. An American anti-missile system
    4. A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
    Show answer

    Answer: C. An American anti-missile system

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  44. With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

    1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.

    2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.

    3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.

    4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 and 4 only

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  45. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the 'Rule of Law'?

    1. Limitation of Powers
    2. Equality before law
    3. People's responsibility to the Government
    4. Liberty and civil rights

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1, 2 and 4 only

    Read the full explanation →

  46. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

    1. The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases.
    2. The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims.
    3. The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange etc.
    4. The metallic money in circulation in a country.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims.

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  47. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

    1. the opportunity cost is zero.
    2. the opportunity cost is ignored.
    3. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
    4. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.

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  48. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

    1. industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
    2. agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
    3. poverty and unemployment increase.
    4. imports grow faster than exports.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. poverty and unemployment increase.

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  49. Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

    1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
    2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
    3. accumulation of tangible wealth.
    4. accumulation of intangible wealth.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 4
    4. 1, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 2 and 4

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  50. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

    1. weak administrative machinery
    2. illiteracy
    3. high population density
    4. high capital-output ratio
    Show answer

    Answer: D. high capital-output ratio

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  51. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what measure/measures were taken by the colonial government?

    1. The territories called 'Santhal Parganas' were created.
    2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Both 1 and 2

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  52. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the

    1. increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
    2. growth in the number of Indian owned factories
    3. commercialization of Indian agriculture
    4. rapid increase in the urban population
    Show answer

    Answer: C. commercialization of Indian agriculture

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  53. If the President of India exercises his powers as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in a particular State, then

    1. the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
    2. the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
    3. Article 19 is suspended in that State.
    4. the President can make laws relating to that State.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

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  54. Consider the following pairs:

    Craft Heritage : State

    1. Puthukkuli shawls : Tamil Nadu
    2. Sujni embroidery : Maharashtra
    3. Uppada Jamdani saris : Karnataka

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 3 only
    4. 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

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  55. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?

    1. Mobile phone operations
    2. Banking operations
    3. Controlling the power grids

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

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  56. Consider the following statements:

    1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.

    2. Treasury Bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the state governments.

    3. Treasury bills are issued at a discount from par value.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 2 and 3 only

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  57. Consider the following statements:

    1. The Earth's magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.

    2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.

    3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1 and 3 only

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  58. The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

    1. Exoplanets
    2. Cryptocurrency
    3. Cyber attacks
    4. Mini satellites
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Cyber attacks

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  59. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of 'Conservation Agriculture' assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

    1. Avoiding the monoculture practices

    2. Adopting minimum tillage

    3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops

    4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface

    5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1, 3 and 4
    2. 2, 3, 4 and 5
    3. 1, 2, 4 and 5
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 5
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1, 2, 4 and 5

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  60. The term 'sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction' is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

    1. Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
    2. Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
    3. Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
    4. Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

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